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- Dermatology Module August 2023 MRCP Part-1 0%
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Question 1 of 44
1. Question
An 18-year-old lady attends the dermatology clinic as her parents are concerned about some changes they have noticed in her skin. She is from a travelling community, and as such her parents have previously avoided medical services.
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On examination, the doctor notices that she has a number of facial and periungual fibroma. She also has at least five hypomelanotic areas on her skin. Examination of her mouth reveals gingival fibromata and pitting of her tooth enamel.
_x000D_
Abnormality on which chromosome associated with this disease is likely to be found?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This lady has tuberous sclerosis, which is inherited in autosomal dominant fashion, with responsible defects having been identified on both chromosome 9 and chromosome 16. These chromosomes carry codes for hamartin and tuberin, protein gene products which are responsible for regulation of cell growth.
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Most of the tumours which are produced in tuberous sclerosis are hamartomas, and various phenotypes of the disease occur, with some parents of patients having much more subtle features than those seen in their children.
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Question 2 of 44
2. Question
Which of the following is infuriated by exposure to sunlight?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Exacerbation or localisation of other dermatoses is characteristic of:
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- _x000D_
- Pellagra
- Hartnup disease
- Lupus erythematosus
- Darier’s disease
- Rosacea
- Scleroderma
- Actinic lichen planus
- Lymphocytoma.
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_x000D_
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_x000D_
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Question 3 of 44
3. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding treatment of psoriasis is true
CorrectIncorrectHint
The most important adverse event of infliximab is the increased risk of infection including sepsis and opportunistic infection. Patients with predisposing underlying conditions such as diabetes mellitus are at higher risk of infection. If any severe infection develops infliximab should be temporarily withdrawn and the need for antibiotics considered.
_x000D_
All tumour necrosis factor (TNF) blockers carry a warning about reactivation of tuberculosis (TB) (black box for infliximab). The boxed warning advises prescribing physicians to screen all patients for tuberculosis (TB) before initiation of therapy, to pretreat those with latent disease and to monitor patients for signs and symptoms of tuberculosis (TB) throughout the treatment course with infliximab. In a recent review of 130 cases of infliximab-associated tuberculosis reported to the FDA, many cases occurred in patients with a negative tuberculin skin test but with risk factors for tuberculosis (TB). Most cases occur shortly after initiation of treatment. Presentation may be with disseminated or military tuberculosis. A screening chest x-ray is essential and testing for tuberculid sensitivity should be considered.
_x000D_
Etanercept, which is a recombinant tumour necrosis factor and receptor fusion protein, has demonstrated considerable beneficial effects on psoriatic arthropathy in placebo controlled, double blind studies.
_x000D_
Part of the attraction of vitamin D analogues over steroids is that they do not cause cutaneous atrophy, whereas steroids do.
_x000D_
Retinoids are most effective in combination therapy especially with ultraviolet B (UVB) phototherapy and PUVA but as monotherapy they are not effective treatment for psoriasis.
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Psoralen and ultraviolet light (PUVA) is an effective treatment for psoriasis, but this has been related to increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma and possibly malignant melanoma.
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Question 4 of 44
4. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding psoriasis is true?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The prevalence of psoriasis is reported as between 0.5 and 4.6%.
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For reasons which may be explained by the filtering of ultraviolet B (UVB) light, psoriasis is more common at higher altitudes.
_x000D_
The commonest form of psoriasis is plaque psoriasis, making up approximately 80% of cases (guttate -10%, erythrodermic – 3%, pustular – 3%).
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Studies report:
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- _x000D_
- a 5-42% prevalence of psoriatic arthropathy in patients with cutaneous psoriasis
- arthropathy precedes cutaneous lesions in 20%
- cutaneous lesions precede joint disease in 60-70%, and
- they occur simultaneously in 10-20%.
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_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
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Question 5 of 44
5. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1) is correct?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1) is usually diagnosed during childhood. Signs are often noticeable at birth or shortly afterward and almost always by age of 10 years. Signs and symptoms are often mild to moderate, but can vary in severity.
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Signs and symptoms include:
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- _x000D_
- Flat, light brown spots on the skin (cafe au lait spots).These harmless spots are common in many people. Having more than six Café-au-lait spots suggests neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1). They are usually present at birth or appear during the first years of life. After childhood, new spots stop appearing.
- Freckling in the armpits or groin area.Freckling usually appears by ages 3 to 5. Freckles are smaller than Café-au-lait spots and tend to occur in clusters in skin folds.
- Tiny bumps on the iris of the eye (Lisch nodules).These harmless nodules cannot easily be seen and do not affect vision. Lisch nodules of the iris are present in more than 90% of patients.
- Soft, pea-sized bumps on or under the skin (neurofibromas).These benign tumors usually develop in or under the skin, but can also grow inside the body. Sometimes, a growth will involve many nerves (plexiform neurofibroma). Plexiform neurofibromas, when located on the face, can cause disfigurement. Neurofibromas may increase in number with age.
- Bone deformities.Abnormal bone development and a deficiency in bone mineral density can cause bone deformities such as a curved spine (scoliosis) or a bowed lower leg.
- Tumor on the optic nerve (optic glioma).These tumors usually appear by age 3, rarely in late childhood and adolescence, and almost never in adults.
- Learning disabilities.Impaired thinking skills are common in children who have NF1 but are usually mild. Often there is a specific learning disability, such as a problem with reading or mathematics. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and speech delay also are common.
- Larger than average head size.Children with NF1 tend to have a larger than average head size due to increased brain volume.
- Short stature.Children who have NF1 often are below average in height.
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Bilateral acoustic neuromas are a hallmark feature of Neurofibromatosis type 2.
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Question 6 of 44
6. Question
Which one of the following assertions regarding cutaneous anthrax is correct?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis a Gram positive rod.
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Cutaneous anthrax is caused by direct contact of the bacteria into an open wound (usually touching an infected animal). Cutaneous anthrax is associated with a black eschar without pus, tends to be painless and to have widespread oedema.
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Without antibiotics, mortality is of the order of 20%, but with antibiotics, mortality is low, which contrasts with pulmonary anthrax.
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Question 7 of 44
7. Question
An 18-year-old lady presents to the clinic with extensive, integrated, hypopigmented, slightly scaly lesions on her back and chest.
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The rash had been present for three years and had gradually become more extensive. She had otherwise been fit and well. The lesions were not symptomatic but she was concerned about their appearance.
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Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This lady presents with an asymptomatic eruption on her trunk. The lesions are scaly, hypopigmented, and are not associated with any systemic disease. This is characteristic of pityriasis versicolor, which is caused by the unicellular yeast Pityrosporum ovale and Pityrosporum orbiculare. The yeast is lipophilic and is encouraged by an increase in environmental temperature, thus many patients notice that the condition begins after a summer vacation.
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It is a disorder of the healthy, but the immunocompromised are at risk.
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The condition is asymptomatic and appears pale in comparison to the normal skin. The fungus affects the melanocytes hence the hypo-pigmentation.
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The treatment options include topical imidazole creams, selenium sulphide shampoo and, if not responding to topical treatment, oral itraconazole 200 mg once a day for seven days.
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In this lady the topical treatment should be tried first
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Question 8 of 44
8. Question
A 74-year-old gentleman presents to the dermatology clinic for a review. He had a history of a red facial rash and has suffered with venous eczema of both the legs. He was treated for acne rosacea in the recent past.
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On examination, he was noted to have blue-grey discolouration of both of his lower extremities.
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Which one of the following drugs is most likely responsible for his presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This gentleman has developed skin pigmentation and blue-grey discolouration of his legs as a side effect of treatment of his acne rosacea.
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Tetracyclines are commonly used treatment for acne rosacea. Long-term use of minocycline in particular has been associated with non-dose dependent blue-grey pigmentation of skin in the lower legs, and mucosal pigmentation. This is more common in the elderly. On biopsy, intracellular pigment is seen in the dermis and the subcutaneous tissue and stains positively for melanin and iron. If not extensive, hyperpigmentation may partially regress after minocycline is discontinued. If it persists, alexandrite laser therapy can be effective.
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Amiodarone can also cause a blue-grey slate discolouration of the skin, typically in sun exposed areas. You would therefore expect the face to be affected, and also amiodarone is not a treatment for acne rosacea which has been mentioned in this question to lead you to the correct answer.
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Hypersensitivity to the sun has been described with ciprofloxacin, but discolouration as in this scenario is not recognised.
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Oxytetracycline and doxycycline can lead to photosensitivity, but skin pigmentation seems to be specific to minocycline rather than a class effect of the tetracyclines
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Question 9 of 44
9. Question
A 72-year-old gentleman presents to the Dermatology Clinic with generalised erythema and pustule formation.
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He has a history of psoriasis and has recently been treated with oral prednisolone for asthma.
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Which one of the following is the most appropriate next course of management?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This is erythroderma which is a dermatological emergency.
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The gentleman needs admission with close supervision and supportive treatment with IV fluids and antibiotics.
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Question 10 of 44
10. Question
A 7-year-old girl with crops of asymptomatic rash over the trunk for three months was admitted to the paediatric ward.
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Examination revealed skin coloured to pearly white and hemispherical to umbilicated papular lesions. Each one is approximately 3.0 mm in diameter and there are approximately 18 of these lesions present.
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Which one of the following is the most anticipated diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum is obvious when a child presents with pearly white hemispherical lesions particularly if they are umbilicated over limbs, trunk or face in various stages of evolution.
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Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive patients may present with cryptococcosis. Cryptococcus neoformans infection affects 5-10% of patients with AIDS in the United Kingdom and USA and 30-40% in Africa. Up to 20% of patients with disseminated disease may have skin involvement.
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In HIV/AIDS cryptococcal skin involvement should be suspected when papulonodular necrotising skin lesions with central umbilication, like molluscum contagiosum are encountered in such patients along with pulmonary or neurological disease. Hence cutaneous cryptococcosis must be kept as a differential in a case of umbilicated lesions on the skin.
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Folliculitis presents with painful papulopustular follicular lesions.
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Herpes simplex infection presents with recurrent grouped vesicular eruptions on an erythematous base at mucocutaneous junctions.
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Warts present with verrucous plaques and papules more commonly over extremities.
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Question 11 of 44
11. Question
A 69-year-old gentleman attends the Outpatient Department with a longstanding leg ulcer.
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Which one of the following minerals is most essential in wound healing?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Certain supplements are important in wound healing particularly zinc, vitamin C, and arginine.
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Zinc is a component of many of the enzymes responsible for wound healing.
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Question 12 of 44
12. Question
A 69-year-old gentleman consults the dermatologist at his clinic for a three-month history of a widespread pruritic rash.
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Examination shows widespread erythema with several small blisters containing straw-coloured fluid and two or three larger serosanguineous blisters.
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Which one of the following is the most plausible diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pemphigoid, erythema multiforme, and herpes are the commonest causes of a blistering rash.
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The history above is a classic description of bullous pemphigoid.
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Bullous pemphigoid is a blistering skin disease characterized by an autoimmune response to 2 hemidesmosomal proteins within the dermal-epidermal junction, designated BP180 and BP230. While BP230 localizes intracellularly and associates with the hemidesmosomal plaque, BP180 is a transmembrane glycoprotein with an extracellular domain. Most patients with bullous pemphigoid have autoantibodies binding to an immunodominant region of BP180, the noncollagenous 16A domain (NC16A), which is located extracellularly close to the transmembrane domain of the protein. Autoreactive T and B cell responses to BP180 have been found in patients with bullous pemphigoid. Passive transfer of antibodies to the murine BP180 ectodomain triggers a blistering skin disease in mice that closely mimics human bullous pemphigoid. Lesion formation in this animal model depends upon complement activation, mast cell degranulation and accumulation of neutrophils and eosinophils. Patients’ autoantibodies to BP180 induce dermal-epidermal separation in cryosections of human skin when co-incubated with leukocytes. The loss of cell-matrix adhesion is mediated by proteinases released by granulocytes. The increased knowledge of the pathophysiology of bullous pemphigoid should facilitate the development of novel therapeutic strategies for this disease.
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Question 13 of 44
13. Question
A 69-year-old gentleman presented to the Outpatient Department with an ulcer over the right ankle, which had developed over the previous seven months. He had a history of left deep vein thrombosis (DVT) four years earlier.
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On examination he had a superficial slough-based ulcer, 5.0 cm in diameter, over the medial malleolus with no evidence of cellulitis.
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Which one of the following investigations is required before application of compression bandaging?
CorrectIncorrectHint
It has been reported that venous ulcerations are the most common type of ulcer affecting the lower extremities. The probable underlying cause of venous congestion, which may promote ulceration, is venous insufficiency.
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The treatment of venous ulceration is control of oedema, treating any infection, and compression. However, compressive dressings or devices should not be applied if the arterial circulation is impaired.
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It is thus important to identify any arterial disease, and ankle-brachial pressure index is a simple way of doing this. One may then progress to lower limb arteriogram if indicated.
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There is no clinical sign of infection, and although a bacterial swab would help to rule out pathogens within the ulcer, arterial insufficiency is the more important issue.
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If there is a clinical suspicion of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) then duplex (or rarely a venogram) is indicated to decide on the indication for anticoagulation.
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Question 14 of 44
14. Question
A 68-year-old obese lady with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2 DM) attends the Outpatient Department for a review. She has an extensive erythematous skin rash affecting the underside of both breasts and skin folds over her lower abdomen. Inspite of using topical moisturiser, she says her skin is breaking down, is itchy and bleeding.
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On examination, she has a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg; her pulse rate is 74 beats per minute and regular. She is apyrexial. Her body mass index (BMI) is 33 kg/m2. The rash is moist with yellowish adherent plaques and papules around the edges. Routine bloods reveal an elevated plasma glucose and serum C-reactive protein (CRP), but the rest of the laboratory values are otherwise unremarkable. Her most recent serum HbA1c is 7.8%.
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Which one of the following is the most useful intervention for her presenting skin pathology?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The answer is oral fluconazole. The presentation here is consistent with candida related intertrigo, as a result of this patient’s diabetes and obesity, which leads to skin folds being warm and moist, increasing the chances of fungal infection. The debate is between topical and oral therapy, but given this patient has very extensive infection and a history of diabetes (known to result in relative immunosuppression), oral intervention is preferred to the topical option. In total oral fluconazole can be given for a period of 2-4 weeks.
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Intensified glycaemic control will be useful in reducing the risk of future infection, but it is highly unlikely to eradicate the current problem, and as such anti-fungal intervention is preferred. Both topical clotrimoxazole and terbinafine are options in patients with more limited infection, and hydrocortisone may be added where there is marked inflammation but is not used as monotherapy.
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Question 15 of 44
15. Question
A 68-year-old gentleman with raised, erythematous lesions on his limbs and blisters in the mouth and eyes presents to the dermatology clinic for a review. He had been taking a number of drugs as advised by his general practitioner.
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Which one of the following drugs may be responsible for his presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This is a typical case of Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
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Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) is an immune-complex-mediated hypersensitivity complex that is a severe expression of erythema multiforme.
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Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) typically involves the skin and the mucous membranes. While minor presentations may occur, significant involvement of:
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- _x000D_
- oral
- nasal
- eye
- vaginal
- urethral
- gastrointestinal (GI), and
- lower respiratory tract mucous membranes
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may develop in the course of the illness.
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Gastrointestinal and respiratory involvement may progress to necrosis.
_x000D_
Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a serious systemic disorder with the potential for severe morbidity and even death.
_x000D_
The drugs most closely associated with causing Stevens-Johnson syndrome are:
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- _x000D_
- antibacterials
- sulfonamides
- anticonvulsants (oxicam)
- non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents (piroxicam and tenoxicam)
- chlormezanone, and
- allopurinol.
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Question 16 of 44
16. Question
A 67-year-old lady presented to the Emergency Department with a generalised erythroderma of four days duration. She has a prolonged history of psoriasis.
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Examination reveals her to be shivering but otherwise well. She was treated as an inpatient with emollients and attention to fluid replacement and temperature control but no improved was noted even after five days of therapy.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most appropriate next line of management for this lady?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Erythroderma is an emergency as patients are susceptible to profound dehydration, infection, and hypothermia.
_x000D_
Methotrexate would be the only correct treatment for someone with erythrodermic psoriasis.
_x000D_
Steroids could lead to unstable pustular psoriasis and would not generally work.
_x000D_
Hydroxychloroquine has little effect on psoriasis.
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Topical coal tar and dithranol are good treatments for chronic plaque psoriasis, but are highly irritant and would make the erythroderma much more inflamed and deteriorate his condition.
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Question 17 of 44
17. Question
A 68-year-old gentleman attends the Emergency Department with a severe exacerbation of psoriasis. He has a history of long-standing psoriasis and heavy alcohol consumption. He was admitted and received topical therapy and over the month of his admission, his serum gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) concentration had fallen from 390 U/L to 145 U/L (4-35).
_x000D_
He was seen in the Outpatient Department a month after his discharge and it is found that his psoriasis remained under control, but he complained of generalised hair loss.
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Which one of the following is the most likely cause for his hair loss?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Telogen effluvium is triggered by many factors, which include treatment of pathological conditions using retinoids, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, depression medicines and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). In the above case, the gentleman received topical therapy for his psoriasis, which might include retinoids and hence this is a clue to the correct answer.
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Trichotillomania, also called hair-pulling disorder, is a mental disorder that involves recurrent, irresistible urges to pull out hair from the scalp, eyebrows or other areas of the affected person’s body, despite trying to stop. This option can thus be ignored right away as no such hint has been given in the question.
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Thiamine deficiency is more related to rapid weight loss and less related to hair loss.
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Alopecia areata is a disease that happens when the immune system attacks hair follicles and causes hair loss. Hair follicles are the structures in skin that form hair. While hair can be lost from any part of the body, alopecia areata usually affects the head and face. Hair typically falls out in small, round patches about the size of a quarter, but in some cases, hair loss is more extensive. Most people with the disease are healthy and have no other symptoms.
_x000D_
Iron deficiency can cause excessive hair shedding, which is again called telogen effluvium.
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Question 18 of 44
18. Question
A 68-year-old gentleman attends to the clinic of the dermatologist with a three month history of a dry, and pruritic rash affecting his upper back and shins.
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Which one of the following is the first line treatment for this gentleman?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This gentleman is likely to have asteatotic eczema which is a common problem and will improve just with plain emollients.
_x000D_
Xerotic skin is commoner in the elderly population especially in the winter months due to the dry heat from central heating.
_x000D_
All the other suggestions may be appropriate in a patient resistant to first line treatment but the first line is to try emollients.
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Question 19 of 44
19. Question
A 66-year-old gentleman, with no significant past medical history, attended the clinic with complaint of a rash that had developed over three months. He was otherwise fit and well.
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On examination, there were numerous tense, fluid-filled blisters over the trunk and limbs, but no mucosal involvement was evident.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most anticipated diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The gentleman presents with tense blisters on his arms, trunk and legs. He is otherwise well and there is no mucosal involvement. This is typical of bullous pemphigoid.
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Dermatitis herpetiformis presents with itchy excoriated areas in the elbows knees and buttocks.
_x000D_
Erythema multiforme presents with characteristic target lesions.
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Herpes simplex is vesicular and in generalised cases the patient is likely to be unwell.
_x000D_
Pemphigus presents with superficial erosions and usually there is mucosal involvement.
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Question 20 of 44
20. Question
A 67-year-old gentleman presents to the Outpatient Clinic with chronic leg ulceration which is a sequel of venous insufficiency.
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Which one of the following is the most appropriate line of treatment?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Venous ulcers are secondary to venous stasis and chronic stretching of the walls of the superficial veins. These eventually become thinner and ulcerate.
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The mainstay of treatment of venous ulceration is compression bandaging, which aims to improve venous return and thereby reduce venous hypertension.
_x000D_
The patient should always have their Doppler’s and ABPI (ankle brachial pressure index) prior to compression. The ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) should be greater than 1 before compression bandaging is used (this excludes significant arterial disease).
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Question 21 of 44
21. Question
A 65-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with severe nausea and lethargy, a few days after commencement of diclofenac and amoxicillin as prescribed by his general practitioner for management of pain and a urinary tract infection (UTI). He has no past medical history of apart from hypertension for which he takes ramipril. He suspects that he has injured his back while lifting a heavy wooden table on a delivery van.
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On examination, his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg; he has bilateral crackles on auscultation of the chest; his pulse rate is 88 beats per minute and regular. His abdominal examination is unremarkable. He is noted to have a widespread erythematous rash over his trunk.
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Investigations Show:
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_x000D_ _x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Haemoglobin
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_x000D_ 121 g/L
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_x000D_
_x000D_ (135-180)
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_x000D_ _x000D_ Total Leucocyte Count
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_x000D_ 9.1 ×109/L
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_x000D_ (4-11)
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_x000D_ _x000D_ Eosinophilia
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_x000D_ _x000D_
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_x000D_ _x000D_ Platelet Count
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_x000D_ 218 x 109/l
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_x000D_ (150-400)
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_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Sodium
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_x000D_ 141 mmol/l
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_x000D_ (135-146)
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_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Potassium
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_x000D_ 6.2 mmol/l
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_x000D_ (3.5-5)
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_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Creatinine
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_x000D_ 388 mmol/l
_x000D_
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_x000D_ (79-118)
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_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Urine Dipstick Analysis:
_x000D_
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_x000D_ Protein++; Blood – Nil;
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most anticipated diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The rapid onset of renal failure, coupled with a rash and eosinophilia is highly suspicious of a diagnosis of interstitial nephritis as a result of exposure to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or amoxicillin.
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40-60% of cases of interstitial nephritis are due to drug hypersensitivity. Those most commonly involved include penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), thiazides and furosemide. Interstitial nephritis usually develops within 2-60 days of treatment with a beta-lactam, and presents with haematuria, acute kidney injury (AKI), and fever. A maculopapular rash and hepatic involvement can also occur. Interstitial nephritis associated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is most commonly seen in elderly patients who have taken non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) intermittently for months to years. Proteinuria is dominant, and the nephrotic syndrome can develop.
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Ultrasound scanning is generally recommended in all cases of acute kidney injury, to exclude renal tract obstruction. In interstitial nephritis, renal size is usually normal and there may be some increased cortical echogenicity. A definite diagnosis can only be made with renal biopsy, which usually shows mononuclear cell infiltrate throughout the interstitium with associated oedema.
_x000D_
The mainstay of treatment is to withdraw any drug which may be causative. High-dose prednisolone is indicated in some cases to hasten recovery. Dialysis may be required in acute cases.
-
Question 22 of 44
22. Question
A 61-year-old lady presents to the Dermatology Clinic with complaints of blistering of the hands and arms, which deteriorates during the summer season. She is otherwise well and drinks approximately 15 units of alcohol in a week.
_x000D_
Examination of her skin revealed corrosions and stigmatization on the backs of her hands and forearms, and some mild hirsutism.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most plausible diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The history of photosensitive eruption, hypertrichosis, and milia formation (keratin-containing cysts) are characteristic of porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT).
_x000D_
Bullous pemphigoid is a rare skin condition that mainly affects older people. It usually starts with an itchy, raised rash. As the condition develops, large blisters can form on the skin. It may last a few years and sometimes causes serious problems, but treatment can help manage the condition in most cases.
_x000D_
Acute intermittent porphyria usually causes intermittent neurological and abdominal problems.
_x000D_
Subacute lupus erythematous (LE) can cause erythema and scarring, but in a patient with increased alcohol intake and hypertrichosis the most likely diagnosis is porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT).
_x000D_
Erythropoietic protoporphyria patients get pain and erythema on exposure to sunlight.
-
Question 23 of 44
23. Question
A 60-year-old lady with a history of obesity, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD), low back pain, and ischaemic heart disease (IHD) presents to the clinic with large, itchy weals over the body and all of her limbs and a sensation of tightness in the throat.
_x000D_
Which one of the following drugs has most likely triggered this skin eruption?
CorrectIncorrectHint
In hypersensitive patients, aspirin can cause:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- angioedema
- bronchospasm, and
- urticaria (skin rashes).
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
-
Question 24 of 44
24. Question
A 60-year-old gentleman presents to the dermatology clinic with a non-pruritic rash that had developed over the last three months.
_x000D_
Examination revealed several circular, erythematous, raised bordered, smooth-surfaced lesions of variable size from 2 – 5 cm in diameter on the elbows, extensor aspects of both the forearms and knuckles.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most anticipated diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The history of non-itchy, circular, raised, smooth-surfaced lesions on the elbows, extensor aspects of the forearms and knuckles and the raised borders are suggestive of granuloma annulare.
_x000D_
Discoid eczema tends to be scaly and pruritic in nature.
_x000D_
Psoriasis typically has a silvery scale and can be pruritic.
_x000D_
Urticaria lasts for a few hours and is pruritic.
_x000D_
Tinea corporis is a fungal infection and is typically scaly and pruritic in nature.
_x000D_
The most likely answer is therefore granuloma annulare. This can be associated with diabetes.
-
Question 25 of 44
25. Question
A 56-year-old gentleman underwent a renal transplant seven years ago and is on ciclosporin since then. He now presents with a small, hard lesion on the side of his head. It has a brown irregular border with a central hard area.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Long term immunosuppression, for example with ciclosporin, can predispose patients with autoimmune disorders or transplant to infections and malignancy. The most common malignancies are squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) or basal cell carcinoma (BCC) of the skin. The description of this lesion most classically fits that of a squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). Basal cell carcinomas (BCCs) classically occur on the face or in sun-exposed areas, and are red/pink and pearly in nature. They may also ulcerate.
_x000D_
Malignant melanoma is usually an irregular, pigmented, growing mole that may be asymmetrical and showing worrying features e.g. bleeding.
_x000D_
Seborrhoeic keratoses are benign keratinised warts which are a sign of skin aging.
_x000D_
Actinic keratosis is a dry pre-cancerous skin change associated with sun exposure.
-
Question 26 of 44
26. Question
A 55-year-old gentleman presented to the dermatology clinic with a four year history of difficulty in swallowing, hard calcified nodules in his fingers, and cold hands.
_x000D_
Examination revealed calcified nodules, sclerodactyly, and facial telangiectasia.
_x000D_
Which one of the following antibodies is most likely to be found in his blood?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This gentleman has features of CREST syndrome, making systemic sclerosis the most likely diagnosis.
_x000D_
Systemic sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease characterised by increased fibroblast activity and fibrosis in a number of different organ systems. Ninety to 95% of patients have positive antinuclear antibodies.
_x000D_
There are two major subtypes:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- limited cutaneous, and
- diffuse cutaneous.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
CREST syndrome is an older term for the limited cutaneous form (calcinosis, Raynaud’s’ phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia).
_x000D_
Patients with systemic sclerosis can present with the following:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- skin abnormalities
- musculoskeletal changes
- gastrointestinal complications
- pulmonary disease
- renal crisis, and
- dry eyes and mouth.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
A number of autoantibodies against extractable nuclear antigens can be detected in patients with systemic sclerosis. Anticentromere antibodies and anti topoisomerase I antibodies are the classic autoantibodies associated with the disease.
_x000D_
Anticentromere antibodies are linked with limited cutaneous involvement and isolated pulmonary hypertension, and a good prognosis, whereas anti topoisomerase I is linked with diffuse skin disease and pulmonary fibrosis and a higher mortality.
_x000D_
Additional autoantibodies which can be detected are anti-RNA polymerase, anti-U3RNP, antiKu, and ant-iU1RNP.
_x000D_
Anticardiolipin antibodies are seen in antiphospholipid syndrome.
_x000D_
Anti-DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
_x000D_
Antimitochondrial antibodies are seen in primary biliary cirrhosis.
_x000D_
Antimyeloperoxidase antibodies are also referred to as p-anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (pANCA), and can be seen in a variety of vasculitides.
-
Question 27 of 44
27. Question
A 52-year-old lady and her 23-year-old daughter presented to the clinic with multiple itchy red lesions over their trunks and groins.
_x000D_
The daughter had initially developed the rash after working out in the nearby fitness centre following which her mother noticed a similar rash bothering her.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most plausible diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Dermatophytosis is common in young adults. It usually presents with annular scaly plaques with active peripheral margins and central clearing resulting in increasing size of the lesions. The lesions are typically itchy and increase in number over a period of time. The affliction of legs and thighs is termed tinea corporis. It is an occupational dermatoses in athletes and may be recurrent in them if due precautions are not taken. The condition is contagious and can typically spread in immediate contacts, such as family members, if treatment is delayed or precautions are not taken.
_x000D_
Allergic contact dermatitis will present with itchy papulovesicular eruption at the site of contact of the allergen.
_x000D_
Fixed drug eruption presents with erythematous or hyperpigmented macules or patches, sometimes with central bullae. History of drug intake may be forthcoming and a history of other recurrent episodes at the same site may be present.
_x000D_
Psoriasis presents with papulosquamous lesions with micaceous scaling. Annular lesions may be present. Itching is not a feature.
_x000D_
Sarcoidosis may present with scaly plaques; however, features of peripheral activity and central clearing are usually not seen and itching is not a feature.
-
Question 28 of 44
28. Question
A 51-year-old lady presents to the clinic with a widespread blistering rash.
_x000D_
Which one of the following features would be harmonious with a diagnosis of pemphigus?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pemphigus is associated with loss of intercellular cohesion in the lower part of the epidermis, leading to acantholysis (separation of keratinocytes). Pemphigus is classically associated with flaccid blistering, and often with immunoglobulin (Ig) G antibodies.
_x000D_
Treatment may be successful with azathioprine.
_x000D_
Pemphigoid is associated with subepidermal bullae
-
Question 29 of 44
29. Question
A 48-year-old lady presents to the clinic four weeks after she returns from a backpacking holiday in Sweden with a shallow, painless ulcer of the nose.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most plausible diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Given the history, the likely diagnosis is cutaneous leishmaniasis. Lesion pain and pruritus may be present in cutaneous leishmaniasis but is not typical.
_x000D_
Diagnosis is by histological section with staining for amastigotes.
_x000D_
Leishmania braziliensis is the likely pathogen which is spread by sandfly bites in endemic areas.
_x000D_
Fusobacterium causes the tropical ulcer which is an intensely painful, shallow ulcer.
-
Question 30 of 44
30. Question
A 48-year-old lady presents with a blubbering, erythematous rash, affecting mainly the scalp, forehead, neck, and upper back.
_x000D_
Four days earlier she had used golden hair dye at home to self-administer ‘highlights’.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most anticipated diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hair dye contains substances which may induce an eczematous response in form of contact allergic dermatitis.
_x000D_
This type of reaction is typical for this sort of time scale, and is an example of a type IV, or delayed, hypersensitivity reaction.
_x000D_
Sensitisation occurs on initial exposure to the allergen and ‘memory’ T-cells proliferate in lymphoid tissue. Subsequent exposure to allergen induces activation of the T-lymphocytes and an inflammatory response.
_x000D_
Hairdressing chemicals are a very common cause of contact allergic dermatitis, a disorder which is very common amongst the hairdressing community.
_x000D_
A lady at this age is unlikely to present with a new, previously undiagnosed case of eczema.
_x000D_
Acne rosacea is usually a disorder of the skin on the cheeks and nose.
_x000D_
Acute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (CLE) presents with an erythematous rash over the face and neck. However, there are no eczematous features
-
Question 31 of 44
31. Question
A 50-year-old gentleman presents to the dermatology clinic with an eight month history of a pruritic vesicular-papular rash on his elbows, knees, and buttocks associated with numerous blistering eruptions and excoriations.
_x000D_
His primary care physician has prescribed topical steroid therapy, which has not helped in resolving his symptoms.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most plausible diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This gentleman presents with pruritic vesicles on his elbows, knees, and buttocks which have not responded to topical steroids. This is the classical presentation of herpetiformis dermatitis.
_x000D_
Atopic dermatitis (atopic eczema) usually is flexural and responds to topical steroids.
_x000D_
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a form of vasculitis.
_x000D_
In scabies there are burrows and in psoriasis the rash consists of plaques with silvery scales.
-
Question 32 of 44
32. Question
A 48-year-old lady attends the clinic with pityriasis versicolor.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most appropriate first line management?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Pityriasis versicolor (also called tinea versicolor) is a skin lesion caused by a fungus called Malassezia furfur.
_x000D_
The treatment is topical selenium sulphide.
_x000D_
Oral itraconazole is also effective.
-
Question 33 of 44
33. Question
A 47-year-old lady was diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) and got admitted to the hospital. She has been commenced on quadruple Anti-Tubercular Therapy (ATT) and is reviewed prior to discharge. She is advised to follow-up in the Outpatient Department. During the pre-discharge review, she complains of an irritating red rash affecting both of her shins, and wants to discuss about that if treatment is asserted.
_x000D_
On examination, erythema nodosum is identified.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management of her pathology?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Reassurance that this condition will resolve is the most appropriate action here. The most likely cause for erythema nodosum (EN) in this case is the tuberculosis itself. Given that she is committing to quadruple antibiotic therapy, you would expect the erythema nodosum (EN) to resolve as the infection subsides and therefore no specific treatment for the erythema nodosum (EN) is warranted.
_x000D_
Topical diclofenac and antibiotics are not effective in this situation. The underlying panniculitis which is responsible for erythema nodosum (EN) is not infective in nature, and responds best, if required to topical potassium iodide. Oral corticosteroids may blunt her immune response to tuberculosis (TB) and should therefore be avoided. In summary, topical potassium iodide can be considered in patients with very troublesome erythema nodosum (EN), but other treatment is not indicated in this situation.
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Question 34 of 44
34. Question
A 47-year-old gentleman with atopic dermatitis (atopic eczema) attended the Emergency Department with an acute generalised exacerbation of his disease.
_x000D_
He was admitted to hospital but failed to improve with emollients, topical betamethasone 17-valerate, and oral antihistamine.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Cyclosporin is a well used drug in the treatment of atopic dermatitis (AD). It is usually at doses of 2-5 mg/kg.
_x000D_
The pathophysiology of atopic dermatitis (AD) is complex but the T-lymphocytes are involved and it is known that there is an increased production of cytokines particularly IL-4.
_x000D_
Cyclosporin is a suppressor of T-cells and in that respect works very well in atopic dermatitis and psoriasis. The side effects of hypertension and renal toxicity limit its use.
_x000D_
These patients are seen monthly to have their blood pressure and serum urea and serum electrolytes checked.
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Question 35 of 44
35. Question
A 47-year-old gentleman has erythematous plaques with hyperpigmentation at the edge and central hypopigmentation. Serological tests are unremarkable and he is diagnosed with discoid lupus erythematosus.
_x000D_
Which one of the following therapeutic strategies is most pertinent initially?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Discoid lupus is photosensitive and so avoiding the sun with protective clothing and sunscreens, and changing behaviour is important.
_x000D_
Topical or intradermal steroids and hydroxychloroquine are useful therapies to prevent scarring and new lesions appearing. The latter are less effective if patients continue to smoke.
_x000D_
If these treatments are ineffective, second line drugs such as methotrexate, azathioprine, or thalidomide may be used.
-
Question 36 of 44
36. Question
A 45-year-old lady presents to the dermatology clinic with a rash that has been present intermittently over the last three years.
_x000D_
On examination, there is a symmetrical rash over the cheeks, nose and chin with multiple papules and pustules.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this lady?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The description is that of acne rosacea particularly in view of the distribution, duration and absence of any other features.
_x000D_
The most appropriate treatment is a tetracycline.
-
Question 37 of 44
37. Question
A 45-year-old lady presents to the Dermatology Clinic with complaint of itching and blistering of her hands and forehead, especially in the summer.
_x000D_
On examination there were small areas of excoriation on the backs of her hands.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The distribution of the lesions suggests a photosensitive element.
_x000D_
Both lupus erythematosus and porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) are associated with a photosensitive element; however, this is more typical of porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT).
_x000D_
Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) causes blistering of the hands and the forehead which usually heal with small scar and milia formation.
_x000D_
It is also associated with an excessive alcohol intake.
-
Question 38 of 44
38. Question
A 45-year-old gentleman presents to the Dermatology clinic with red target lesions limited to both his hands and he is diagnosed with erythema multiforme.
_x000D_
Which one of the following could be most likely the cause?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Potential causes of erythema multiforme include:
_x000D_
Infections:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- Viruses – herpes simplex 1 and 2, hepatitis B, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), enteroviruses
- Small agents – Mycoplasma pneumoniae
- Bacteria – Group A Streptococcus, eosin, and
- Other – Mycobacterium tuberculosis, histoplasma, coccidioides.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
Neoplasia:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- Leukaemia, and
- Lymphoma.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
Antibiotics:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- Penicillins
- Sulphonamides
- Isoniazid, and
- Tetracycline.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
Anticonvulsants:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- Phenytoin
- Phenobarbitone, and
- Carbamazepine.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
Other caused include:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- Aspirin
- Radiation therapy
- Etoposide
- Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
- Sunlight, and
- Pregnancy.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
-
Question 39 of 44
39. Question
A 42-year-old gentleman, during a follow up visit at a pulmonology clinic, complains of a mole, with an irregular outline, on the right side of his face, which he has noticed few weeks ago.
_x000D_
Which one of the following characteristics of the lesion would raise suspicion that it is a malignant melanoma?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The mnemonic of ABCDE regarding characteristics of a melanoma are as follows:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- A – Asymmetry – one half of the lesion does not match the other half
- B – Border irregularity
- C – Colour variegation – pigmentation is not uniform
- D – Diameter – a diameter 7 mm warrants investigation although changes in size are also important
- E – Evolution – evolving size or changes in characteristics such as nodules.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
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Question 40 of 44
40. Question
A 42-year-old gentleman visits the dermatology clinic complaining that a mole on his left forearm has changed shape, enlarging to almost 0.5 cm in diameter, and part of it has now become very dark black, although it was previously homogeneous in colour.
_x000D_
He has no significant past medical history but states that he uses tanning beds frequently and have spent a few years of his life in New York.
_x000D_
Investigations Show:
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Haemoglobin
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 132 g/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (135-180)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Total Leucocyte Count
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 5.5 ×109/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (4-10)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Platelet Count
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 205 ×109/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (150-400)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 10 mm/hr
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (1-20)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Sodium
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 140 mmol/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (134-143)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Potassium
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 4.1 mmol/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (3.5-5)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Creatinine
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 108 μmol/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (60-120)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
Excision Biopsy shows a 5.0 mm thick lesion with no ulceration.
_x000D_
Which one of the following features is most associated with a poor prognosis in this gentleman?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Survival is strongly correlated with depth of melanoma at the point of diagnosis, with lesions over 4.0 mm thick being associated with a particularly poor outcome.
_x000D_
Other predictors of a poor outcome include increasing age and male sex.
_x000D_
Ulceration of the lesion also implies greater risk of metastases. For lesions over 4.0 mm thick with ulceration, five year survival is less than 50%.
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Question 41 of 44
41. Question
A 41-year-old lady, with an intensely itchy, red, scaling rash, which affects her scalp predominantly and is worse in spring and winter time, is referred to the dermatology clinic for a review. She also has a patch on her chest and around her cheeks.
_x000D_
On examination, she has a severe scalp rash with crusting and scaling of skin.
_x000D_
Investigations Revealed:
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Haemoglobin
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 133 g/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (135-180)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Total Leucocyte Count
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 6.1 ×109/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (4-10)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Platelet Count
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 195 ×109/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (150-400)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Sodium
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 141 mmol/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (134-143)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Potassium
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 4.1 mmol/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (3.5-5)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Serum Creatinine
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ 100 μmol/L
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ (60-120)
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ _x000D_ Scalp Biopsy
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_ Hyperkeratosis; Acanthosis And Focal Spongiosis
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
She states that she cares most about her scalp.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment for this lady?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This lady has seborrhoeic dermatitis which tends to affect the hair bearing areas of skin with the scalp the worst affected.
_x000D_
It is thought that, at least in part, the activity of activated T-cells may be enhanced by an increased reservoir of Malassezia yeasts. As such, regular washing of the hair with a ketoconazole based shampoo has been shown to reduce the severity of the condition.
_x000D_
Topical corticosteroids have been shown to hasten recovery, but may be associated with a rebound effect and rapid recurrence of the rash when they are withdrawn.
_x000D_
Coal tar shampoo and topical tacrolimus are alternate treatments.
_x000D_
Asteatotic dermatitis typically presents in the elderly with pruritic, xerotic, scaly skin typically over the shins but may occur over the back and hands. Tar based preparations are never used as they would worsen the condition.
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Question 42 of 44
42. Question
A 41-year-old gentleman presents to the dermatology clinic with raised erythematous frail lesions on both of his lower extremities which have developed since he had a throat infection three weeks ago.
_x000D_
Which one of the following investigations is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
CorrectIncorrectHint
This gentleman presents with tender lesions three weeks after a sore throat.
_x000D_
This is most likely to be post-streptococcal erythema nodosum and antistreptolysin-O titre (ASOT) is most likely to confirm this.
-
Question 43 of 44
43. Question
A 41-year-old gentleman presents to the clinic with erythema multiforme (EM) and erythematous lesions of the mouth and the eyes.
_x000D_
Which one of the drugs listed below may account for his presentation?
CorrectIncorrectHint
Many drugs have been implicated in the development of erythema multiforme, and the Stevens-Johnson syndrome subtype.
_x000D_
Most commonly associated is allopurinol.
_x000D_
Also associated are:
_x000D_
- _x000D_
- recent drugs – nevirapine, lamotrigine, sertraline, pantoprazole, tramadol
- antibiotics – sulphonamides, co-trimoxazole, penicillin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, vancomycin
- NSAIDs – piroxicam, fenbufen, ibuprofen, ketoprofen, naproxen, tenoxicam, diclofenac, sulindac
- anti-TB – rifampicin, ethambutol, isoniazid, pyrazinamide
- anticonvulsants – barbiturates, carbamazepine, phenytoin, valproate, lamotrigine
- antifungals – fluconazole, nystatin, griseofulvin, and
- antidepressants – lamotrigine, sertraline.
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
_x000D_
Of the options given, sulphasalazine is the most commonly associated.
-
Question 44 of 44
44. Question
A 48-year-old gentleman visits the dermatology clinic for a review. He has suffered from blisters and ulcers which have progressed over a period of about nine months to cover extensive areas of his upper body, arms and legs. The blisters are painful, but pruritus is minimal. He has a past medical history of hypertension for which he takes losartan and indapamide. He also suffers from epilepsy for which he takes carbamazepine.
_x000D_
On examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg; pulse rate is 78 beats per minute and regular.
_x000D_
Physical examination confirms extensive, enervated blisters, some of which have been de-roofed. The oropharynx is relatively excepted.
_x000D_
Which one of the following is expected to be found on a skin biopsy?
CorrectIncorrectHint
The correct answer is IgG deposition at the dermal-epidermal junction. The clinical presentation here is consistent with bullous pemphigoid, which occurs as a result of IgG antibodies which bind to the skin basement membrane. This accounts for the findings on biopsy. Oral lesions are less typically seen in pemphigoid compared to pemphigus where they are much more common.
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Granuloma formation with neutrophilic infiltrates is seen in patients with erythema nodosum, which has a number of associations but the lesions are more characteristically present only on the shins and do not blister.
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Intercellular deposition of IgG is seen in pemphigus vulgaris, where oral lesions are much more prominent. Neutrophils in the dermal papillae are a feature of dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a pruritic skin rash classically located on the elbows and associated with coeliac disease. T-cell infiltration is seen in Stevens Johnson syndrome, which is a rapidly progressive condition characterised by flu-like symptoms followed by an extensive erythematous rash (including the mucosal surfaces) which subsequently blisters.